For Kant, is rationality always moral? He sees freedom as the ability to choose a morality based on some hypothetical universal concept. Is Kant simultaneously denying metaphysics and encouraging his own pseudo-metaphysic? Why does philosophy tend towards an optimistic view of man's efforts and achievements?
That’s a great question. A metaphysic is unavoidable, Kant denies a directly knowable metaphysic, but using Plato’s knowledge and metaphysical categories. The enlightenment was all about optimism about man. It’s a secularized version of optimistic christian eschatology.
For Kant, is rationality always moral? He sees freedom as the ability to choose a morality based on some hypothetical universal concept. Is Kant simultaneously denying metaphysics and encouraging his own pseudo-metaphysic? Why does philosophy tend towards an optimistic view of man's efforts and achievements?
That’s a great question. A metaphysic is unavoidable, Kant denies a directly knowable metaphysic, but using Plato’s knowledge and metaphysical categories. The enlightenment was all about optimism about man. It’s a secularized version of optimistic christian eschatology.